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Microsoft word - mcq bank_iiterminal_pharmacology.doc

DEPARTMENT OF PHARMACOLOGY
MCQ QUESTION BANK FOR SECOND TERMINAL EXAMINATION
1. Following antimicrobial is considered safe for use in pregnancy A. Trimethoprim B. Amoxycillin C. Doxycycline D. Streptomycin 2. The following statement is correct, regarding antimicrobials A. Sulphonamides inhibit bacterial dihydrofolate reductase B. Macrolides bind to bacterial 50s ribosomal subunit C. Penicillins inhibit bacterial betalactamase D. Rifampcin inhibits RNA-dependent DNA polymerase 3. The following drugs are primarily bacteriostatic EXCEPT A. Sulfadiazine B. Tetracycline C. Streptomycin D. Erythromycin 4. Which pharmacokinetic feature is not shown by the systemically used sulphonamides? A. Ready passage across placenta B. Predominantly excreted by glomerular filtration C. No plasma protein binding D. Genetic variation in metabolism 5. Select the incorrect statement about the sulphonamides A. They inhibit bacterial dihydrofolate reductase B. Their action is antagonized by PABA C. They are primarily bacteristatic in nature D. Their spectrum of activity includes certain chlamydia 6. Following sulfonamide is used topically A. Sulfasalazine B. Sulfadoxine C. Mafenide D. Sulfadiazine 7. The following features cannot be attributed to fluoroquinolones A. Post antibiotic effect B. Efficacy only against gram negative bacteria C. Rapid bactericidal effect D. Concentration dependent killing of bacteria. 8. Trimethoprim A. has structural similarity to pyrimethamine B. Inhibits Folic Acid synthetase C. is safe to be used in pregnancy D. is often used in combination with sulphasalazine 9. Following penicillin preparation acts against Pseudomona aeroginosa A. Phenoxymethyl penicillin B. Piperacillin C. Amoxicillin D. Cloxacillin 10. Following adverse effect is not seen with cephalosporins: A.Teratogenecity B. Bleeding C. Disulfiram-like reactions D. Hypersensitivity 11. Following statement is true regarding aminopenicillins: A. Amoxicillin is more effective than ampicillin against bacillary dysentery due to shigella B.Amoxycllin is usually administered 8 hrly. a day. C. Incidence of diarrhoea is more than amoxicillin than with ampicillin D. Their elimination is not influenced by administration of probenecid 12. The following statement related to B-lactam antibiotics are true EXCEPT A. Clavulanic acid has significant antibacterial activity B. Imipenem is hydrolyzed by renal dehydropeptidase C. Methicillin is usually resistant to action of penicillinase D. Sulbactam inhibits bacterial betalactamase 13. Jarisch :Herxheimer reaction with penicillin is due to A. breakdown of drug by betalactamase enzyme B. Hypersensitivity to penicillins C. Release of Spirochaetal lytic products in syphilitic patients D.It is seen on 2nd or subsequent injection of penicillin in syphilis 15. To increase blood concentration of Imipenem it is combined with A. Clavulanic acid B. Sulbactam C. Cilastatin D. Probenecid 16. Penicillins effective against P.areogenosa is all EXCEPT A. Piperacillin B. Ampicillin C. Carbenicillin D. Ticarcillin 17. Indications for tetracyclines do not include the following condition A.Leprosy B. Tuberculosis C. Amoebiasis D. Acne 18. Which of the following is not an indication for chloramphenicol A.Typhoid carrier state 19. Tetracyclines are avoided in pregnanacy because they can A. cause abortion B.cause spina bifida in child C. Affect bones in foetus D. cause excessive vomiting in mother 20. Adverse reactions to tetracycline do not include A. Liver toxicity B. Bone narrow depression C. Photosensitivity D. Supra infection 21. Following drugs are recommended in management of typhoid, EXCEPT A. Ciprofloxacin B. Ceftriaxone C. Cotrimoxazole D. Cloxacillin 22. Following statements about aminoglycosides are correct EXCEPT A. Streptomycin is more nephrotoxic than kanamycin B. Neomycin is essentially used as intestinal antiseptic C. Amikacin more commonly produces cochlear than vestibular disturbances D. Tobramycin is more effective against P-aeruginosa than gentamicin 23. Following statement regarding aminoglycosides is incorrect A. They interferes with bacterial protein synthesis B. They have predominantly bactericidal effects C. They are effective against anaerobes D. They exhibit a post antibiotic effect 24. With which agent can gentamicin be safely administered A. Cyclosporin b. Furosemide C. Carbenicillin D. Vencomycin 25. Which statement about aminoglycosides is correct? A. They have wide tissue distribution B. They have a narrow margin of safety C. They are effective mainly against anaerobic bacteria D. They interfere with bacterial cell membrane synthesis 26. Amino glycosides A. are bacteriostatic B. have oral bioavailability of about 90% C. are destroyed by microbial enzymes beta lactamase D. are resistant to gastric acid 27. Aminoglycosides produces following adverse effects except A. 8th nerve damage B. Hepatotoxicity C. Nephrotoxicity D. Curaremetic effect 28. Which of the following statement is not true about isoniazid? A. It acts only on extra cellular mycobacteria B. It promotes renal elimination of pyridoxine C. It inhibits mycolic acid synthesis in the cell wall of mycobacteria D. Its metabolism may show genetic variation. 29. Which of the following is not an indication for macrolide use? A.Pseudomembranous colitis B. C.jejimi infection C. Mycoplasma infection D. Whooping cough 30. Risk of cholestatic jaundice is higher with the following salt of Erythromycin A. Propinate B. Estolate C. Stearate D. Ethyl succinate 31. Which of the following statement is not true about isoniazid A. It acts only on extra cellular mycobacteria B. It promotes renal elimination of pyridoxine C. It inhibits mycolic acid synthesis in the cell wall of mycobacteria D. Its metabolism may show genetic variation. 32. Following anti tuberculous agent does not cause hepatic damage A. Rifampicin B. Ethambutol C. Isoniazid D. Pyrazinamide 33. Which of the following is not characteristic of isoniazid A. Its metabolism shows genetic variation B. It can produce peripheral neuritis C. It is contraindicated in pregnancy D. It can produce dose related hepatitis 34. Which of the following is not characteristic of pyrazinamide? A. It exerts bactericidal action B.Good CSF penetration C. It inclusion in multi drug regimen reduces risk of relapse. D. Increases renal uric acid secretion. 35. Use of glucocorticoids in tuberculous patients should not be carried out in A. Hyper sensitivity to anti TB drugs B. Intestinal tuberculosis C. tuberculous pleural effusion D. Miliary tuberculosis 36. Pyridoxine given to a patient of TB prevents A. Rifampicin induced hepatotoxicity B. Etnambutol induced visual defects C. INH induced peripheral nerving D. Streptomycin induced streptomycin 37. Anti TB agent with significant action against persisters includes A.Rifampicin B. Streptomycin C. Pyrcazinamide D INH 38. following statement about INH are true EXCEPT A. It does not act on intracellular organism B. It does not act against persisters C. It is more effective in slow acetylators D. It use is relatively safe in presence of renal dysfunction. 39. Following adverse effect is not encountered with dapsone A. Goitrogenesis B. Polycythemia C. Dermatitis D. Lepra reaction 40. Pick out the incorrect statement about clofazimine
A. It causes reddish black discoloration of skin
B. It interferes with mycobacterial DNA function
C. It has anti inflammation properties
D. It has no effect against dapsone resistant M.leprase
41 Which of the following agents is not used to treat lepra reaction?
A. Clofazimine B. Clarithromycin C. Thalidomide D. Corticosteroids
42 Following statement regarding refampicin as anti leprosy agent is incorrect
A.Rifampicin is leprocidal
B. Mycobacterial resistance is not reported with its use
C. It is administered on once a month supervised basis in leprosy.
D. It imparts red color in urine
43 Dose of Rifampicin in WHO recommended regimen of lepromatous leprosy is
A. 100mg once a week B. 600mg once a week
C. 600mg once a month D. 100mg once a month
44 The anti fungal agent given orally for sickish fungal infection is
A. Amphotericin B B. Ketoconazole
C. Flucytogin D. Fluconazole
45 The following statement is true regarding Amphotericin B
A. It is administered orally
B. It has nephrotoxic effect
C. It exerts anti metabolite action on fungi
D. It has narrow spectrum of anti fungal activity
46 Limitations of antifungal agent ketoconazole include the following EXCEPT
A. It has narrow spectrum of antifungal activity
B. It can cause hepatic dysfunction
C. It can inhibit hepatic microsomal enzymes
D. It can inhibit synthesis of adrenal and Gonadal steroid synthesis.
47 Fluconazole has following advantages over ketoconazole except
A. It reaches significant levels in CSF
B. It does not aupress synthesis of adrenal and gonadal steroids
C. It is effective both by oral as well as intravenous route
D. It does not inhibit hepatic microsomal enzyme



48 .
Limitations of use of zidovudine in HIV AIDSinclude
A. It is given only parenterally
B. It can cause bone marrow depression
C. It has significsant effect on human DNA polymerase
D. It is highly nephrotoxic
49. Azidothymidine
A. It carries high risk of foetal malformation when used during pregnancy
B.It is pyramidine analogue
C.It is a protease inhibitor
D. There is no problem of resistance with long term use
50 .following agent recommended in HIV/AIDS is non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase
A. Saquinavir B. Neuirapine C. Lamivadine D. Zalcitabine 51. Following statement about antiviral agent Idoxuridine is true A. It acts by inhibiting viral DNA synthesis B. It is administered orally C. It is a drug of choice in genital herpes D. It is a guanine nucleoside analogue 52 Following statement is true regarding Amantadine A. It is useful in prophylaxis and treatment of influenza A and influenza B B. It acts by inhibiting release of the virus from the target cells. C. It is used as antiparkinson agent D. Its usual mode of administration is parenteral 53. Following statement is true regarding acyclouir A. It is an anti-viral agent effective in influenza B. It shows very high CSF concentration when given orally C. It is ineffective when applied topically D. It acts by inhibiting viral DNA synthesis 54. Anti-amoebic agent with highly significant action against cyst is A. Diloxamide furoate B. Chloroquin C. Emetin D. Metronidazole 55. Following statement about metronidazole are true, EXCEPT A. It is effective against anaerobic but not against aerobic organisms B.Its administration imparts red color to urine C. It can produce antabuse like reaction D. It is effective as single dose therapy in trichomoniasis 56. The most important adverse effect of emetine includes A Nephrotoxicity B Extra pyramidal effect C Cardiotoxicity D Endocrine disturbances 57. Advantages of metronidazole as an antiamoebic agent include the following Except A It is effective in both intestinal & extraintestinal amoebiasis B It is highly effective in a symptomatic cyst passers. C As a rule does not have significant adverse effects D It is available both for oral as well as intravenous use. 58 . Any of the choices for trichomoniais is A Oral metronidazole B Local iodochlor hydroxyl quinoline C Local povidon iodine D Local Furazolidone 59 Anthelmintic with immunostimulant action is A Levamisole B Pyrantel Pamoate C Albendazole D Diethylcarbamanine 60 Diethylcarbamazine is indicated in following disorders, except A Tropical eosinophilia B Larva migrans C Filariasis D Scabies 61. Following anti tuberculous agent does not cause hepatic damage A. Rifampicin B. Ethambutol C. Isoniazid D. Pyrazinamide 62. Which of the following is not characteristic of isoniazid? A. Its metabolism shows genetic variation B. It can produce peripheral neuritis C. It is contraindicated in pregnancy D. It can produce dose related hepatitis 63. Which of the following is not characteristic of pyrazinamide? A. It exerts bactericidal action B. It has good CSF penetration C. It inclusion in multi drug regimen reduces risk of relapse. D. Increases renal uric acid secretion. 64. Use of glucocorticoids in tuberculous patients should not be carried out in A. Hyper sensitivity to anti TB drugs B. Intestinal tuberculosis C. Tuberculous pleural effusion D. Miliary tuberculosis 65. Pyridoxine given to a patient of TB prevents A. Rifampicin induced hepatotoxicity B. Ethambutol induced visual defects C. INH induced peripheral neuritis D. Streptomycin induced ototoxicity 66. Anti TB agent with significant action against persisters includes A.Rifampicin B. Streptomycin C. Pyrcazinamide D INH 67. Following statements about INH are true EXCEPT A. It does not act on intracellular organisms B. It does not act against persisters C. It can cause encephalopathy in large doses D. Its use is relatively safe in presence of renal dysfunction. 68. Following adverse effect is not encountered with dapsone A. Goitrogenesis B. Polycythemia C. Dermatitis D. Lepra reaction 69. Select the incorrect statement about clofazimine A. It causes reddish black discoloration of skin B. It interferes with mycobacterial DNA function C. It has anti inflammatory properties D. It has no effect against dapsone resistant M.leprae 70. Which of the following agents is not used to treat lepra reaction? A. Clofazimine B. Clarithromycin C. Thalidomide D. Prednisolone 71. Following statement regarding rifampicin as anti leprosy agent is incorrect A.Rifampicin is leprocidal B. Mycobacterial resistance is not reported with its use C. It is administered on once a month supervised basis in leprosy. D. It imparts red color in urine 72. The anti fungal agent given orally for systemic fungal infection is
A. Amphotericin B B. Ketoconazole
C. Flucytosine D. Fluconazole
73. The following statement is true regarding Amphotericin B
A. It is administered orally
B. It has nephrotoxic effect
C. It exerts anti metabolite action on fungi
D. It has narrow spectrum of anti fungal activity
74 .Following statement is true regarding Amantadine
A. It is useful in prophylaxis and treatment of influenza A and influenza B
B. It acts by inhibiting release of the virus from the target cells.
C. It is used as antiparkinson agent
D. Its usual mode of administration is parenteral
75. Following statement is true regarding acyclovir
A. It is an anti-viral agent effective in influenza
B. It shows very high CSF concentration when given orally
C. It is ineffective when applied topically
D. It acts by inhibiting viral DNA synthesis
76 . Limitations of use of zidovadine in HIV/AIDS include
A. It is given only parenteally
B. It can cause bone marrow depression
C. It has significsant effect on human DNA polymerase
D. It is highly nephrotoxic
77. Zidovudine (Azidothymidine)
A. It carries high risk of foetal malformation when used during pregnancy
B.It is pyramiding analog
C.It is a prolease inhibitor
D. There is no problem of resistance with long term use
78. The following agent recommended in HIV/AIDS is non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase
A. Saquinavir B. Neuirapine C. Lamivadine D. Zalcitabine 79. Anti-amoebic agent with highly significant action against cyst is A. Diloxamide furoate B. Chloroquin C. Emetin D. Metronidazole 80. The most important adverse effect of emetine includes 81. Advantages of metronidazole as an antiamoebic agent include the following Except a) It is effective in both intestinal & extraintestinal amoebiasis b) It is highly effective in a symptomatic cyst passers. c) As a rule does not have significant adverse effects d) It is available both for oral as well as intravenous use. 82 Following statement is true regarding Amantadine A. It is useful in prophylaxis and treatment of influenza A and influenza B B. It acts by inhibiting release of the virus from the target cells. C. It is used as antiparkinson agent D. Its usual mode of administration is parenteral 83 Following statement is true regarding acyclovir A. It is an anti-viral agent effective in influenza B. It shows very high CSF concentration when given orally C. It is ineffective when applied topically D. It acts by inhibiting viral DNA synthesis 84. Agent of choice for trichomoniasis is 86 Anthelmintic with immunostimulant action is A Levamisole B Pyrantel Pamoate C Albendazole D Diethylcarbamazine 87. Diethylcarbamazine is indicated in following disorders except A. It is an anti-viral agent effective in influenza B. It shows very high CSF concentration when given orally C. It is ineffective when applied topically D. It acts by inhibiting viral DNA synthesis 88. Therapeutic indications for mefloquinine do not include the following A Uncomplicated malaria B Multidrug resistant Malaria C Prophylaxis in residents of endemia area D rophylaxis of malaria in travelers 89 Antimalarial agent effective against gametocytes of all plasmodia is a) Chloroquine b) Mefloquine c) Quinine d) Primaquine 90 .Anti malarial agent recommended in prevention of relapse of P.Vivax Malaria is a) Primaquine b) Quinine c) Proguanil d) Chloroquine 91 Adverse effects of Quinine include the following. Except a) Hypoglycemia b) Tinnitus c) Myocardial depression d) Peripheral respiratory failure 92 Antimalarial capable of causing retinopathy is a) Pyrimethamine b) Chloroquine c) Mepacrine d) Primaquine 93 Following statement is true regarding primaquine. a) it is a 4 – aminoquinoline derivative b) it is highly effective against shizonts of p.falciparum c) it can cause intra vascular haemolysis in patients with G6PD deficiency d) it is effective against gametocytes of P.vivax but not of P.falciparum 95 Which of the following is an incorrect statement for Digoxin: a. Predominant route of elimination is by hepatic metabolism. b. Plasma protein binding is 25% c. Onset of action is approx 15 to 30 min d. Plasma half life is 40 hours. 96 In management of CCF the following drug is used only for purpose of arrest of disease progression: a. Amrinone b Angiotensin Converting Enzyme Inhibitors c Beta Blockers d Spironolactone 97 Which of the following is an ionotropic agent A etoprolol B Enalapril C Verapamil D Milrinone 98 Drug of choice for rapid termination of Paroxysmal Supraventricular tachycardia is: 99 Which of the following drugs is most suitable for long term prophylaxis of Paroxysmal Supraventricular Tachycardia? A denosine B Verapamil C Lidocaine D Esmolol 100 Digoxin increases cardiac contractility by directly a. Activating L- type Ca channels b. Inhibiting cardiac phosphodiesterase c. Stimulation of Beta 1 adrenergic receptors. d. Inhibiting myocardial Na-K-ATPase 101 .Which of the following is an expected and predominant effect of digoxin in therapeutic dose? a. Prolongation of refractory period of atria. b. Prolongation of refractory period of ventricles. c. Reduced ventricular automaticity d. Slowing of AV nodal conduction velocity 102 . Digitalis induced arrhythmia is enhanced by a. Decreased serum calcium b. Decreased serum sodium c. Decreased serum potassium 103 All of the following are colloid plasma expanders EXCEPT: a. Polyvinypyrrolidone b. Dextran c. 0.9% sodium chloride d. Hydroxyethyl starch a. Is a polypeptide b. Has a molecular weight of 10000. c. Does not interfere with blood grouping and cross matching. d. Can be stored for upto 10 years. 105 Plasma expanders are contraindicated in: a. Burns b. Hypovolemic shock c. Renal insufficiency d. Whole blood loss 106. The following antacid inhibits phosphate absorption a) Aluminum hydroxide b) Calcium carbonate c) Sodium bicarbonate d) Magnesium hydroxide 107. The following drugs act by inhibiting H+K+ATPase enzyme in gastric parietal cells a) Ranitidine b) Rabeprazole c) Rioprostil d) Pirenzepine 108. Following is true about Ranitidine( as compared to Cimetidine) a) More CNS side effects b) More anti androgenic action c) Longer duration of action d) More significant inhibition of hepatic metabolism of other drugs 109. Which of the following is a systemic antacid? a) Magnesium hydroxide b) Aluminum hydroxide c) Calcium carbonate d) Sodium bicarbonate 110 . As an antacid sodium bicarbonate has following disadvantages EXCEPT a) Acid rebound b) Cannot be used in cardiac disease c) Produces alkalosis d) Delayed action 111. Administration of antacid reduces action of the following antiulcer agent a) Omeprazole b) Sucralfate c) Misoprostol d) Pirenzapine 112. The only Proton Pump Inhibitor approved for IV ADMINISTRATON a) Pantoprazole b) Lansoprazole c) Esomeprazole d) Omeprazole 113. Antiulcer agent which has significant action against H .Pylori action is a) Sucralfate b) Omeprazole c) Colloidal Bismuth Subcitrate d) Ranitidine 114. The following drug is effective orally in Ulcerative colitis a) Sulfapyridine b) 5-Amino Salicilic Acid c) Sulfasalizine d) Sulfadoxine 115. All of the following are antimotility drugs EXCEPT a) Loperamide b) Diphenoxylate c) Codeine d) Isabgol 116. Antimotility drugs can be used in following conditions EXCEPT a) Non infective diarrhoea b) Idiopathic diarrhea c) Mild traveller’s diarrhoea d) Diarrhoea in children 117 Action of metoclopramide is due to: a. D2 receptor and 5HT4 receptor agonism. b. D2 receptor antagonism and 5HT4 receptor agonism c. D2 receptor agonism and 5HT3 reeceptor antagonism. d. D2 receptor and 5HT3 receptor agonism. 118 Which of the following antiemetics has a prokinetic action? A Domperidone B Cyclizine C Promethazine D Ondansetron 119 The following class of drugs are used in Gastro Esophageal Reflux disorder EXCEPT: A Proton Pump Inhibitors B 5HT3 Blockers C H2 Blockers D Prokinetic drugs 120 Long term use of metoclopramide may cause all of the following adverse effects EXCEPT: B arkinsonism C Galactorrhoea D Gynecomastia 121 Stimulant purgatives are avoided: a. Prior to colonoscopy. b. Prior to colon surgery c .In constipated pregnant women d .Prior to radiography of abdomen 122 All of the following are bulk forming laxatives EXCEPT: a. Senna b. Bran c. Psyllium d. Methyl cellulose 123 The following laxative also has a role in management of hepatic encephalopathy: 124 Constipation is a common adverse effect of the following agent EXCEPT: a. Erythromycin b. Clonidine c. Verapamil d. Codeine 125 The purgative action of Magnesium sulphate includes all of the following components EXCEPT: b. Retention of water in intestines c. Increasing peristalsis 126 Select the incorrect statement about salmeterol. a. It is a long acting anti-asthma agent b. It is useful in relieving acute attacks of asthma c. It is weaker than salbutamol in action d. It is always used in combination with a inhaled glucocorticoid 127 Which of the following statements about beta 2 adrenergic receptor agonists is incorrect a. They relax the airway smooth muscles of respiratory tract b. They increase mucociliary clearance from the respiratory tract c. They inhibit adenylyl cyclase d. They inhibit mediator release from the mast cells and basophils 128 The following statements are true about salbutamol, EXCEPT a. Cardiac side effects are less prominent b. Muscle tremors are a dose related side effect c. It produces rapid onset of bronchodilatation on inhalation d. It is suitable for round the clock prophylaxis in patients of asthma 129 Following statements are true about theophylline, EXCEPT a. It inhibits phosphodiesterase enzyme in bronchi b. It stimulates adenosine receptors in bronchi c. It exhibits variability in bioavailability d. It follows saturation kinetics 130 Following agent can safely be administered when etiology of asthma is in doubt (cardiac or pulmonary) a. Aminophylline b. Adrenaline c. Salbutamol d. Ipratropium bromide 131 The following statement about leukotrienes modifiers as anti-asthmatics are true, EXCEPT a. They are very potent bronchodialators b. They can safely be combined with glucocorticoids c. They are effective orally as alternative to low dose inhaled steroids in mild asthma d. Their use mandates periodic monitoring of hepatic function 132 The following statement about disodium chromoglycate is incorrect. a. It is a mast cell membrane stabilizer b. It is useful in treating chronic persistent asthma c. It is not useful in exercise-induced asthma d. It is administered as spinhalers 133 All the following statements about ketotifen are true, EXCEPT a. It inhibits airway inflammation induced by platelet activating factor b. It has a powerful bronchodilator effect c. It is an anti-histaminic agent d. It can cause drowsiness 134 Which of the following expectorants acts both directly on the airway mucosa as well as reflexly? a. Potassium Iodide b. Guaiphenesin c. Bromhexine d. Ipecacuanha 135 The most common side effect of codeine when used as anti-tussive is a. Respiratory depression b. Drowsiness c. Abuse liability d. Constipation 136 Select the correct statement about oxytocin A. Sensitivity of uterus to oxytocin is maximum in second trimester of pregnancy. B. It can be administered orally. C. It is a steroid hormone. D. It can cause water intoxication by its mild ADH effect 137 Which of the following drugs is not a uterine stimulant? C. Prostaglandin F2 alpha D. Ergometrin .138 The following drugs can be used as uterine relaxants, EXCEPT 139 .Ergot alkaloids are used in the following conditions, EXCEPT A. Postpartum hemorrhage B. Acute attack to migraine C. Involution of uterus D. Induction of labour 140 . The following was developed as an antidote to arsenical war gas (Lewisite) 141 . Following chelating agents is the choice for given metal poisoning A. Desferrioxamine in iron B D-penicillamine for arsenic C Calciumdisodium Edetate for mercury D. Dimercaprol for lead 142 A Chelating agent A. has same affinity for all heavy metals B. Time lag in its administration does not affect outcome of therapy. C. Produces complex with heavy metals which is easily excreted D. Produces complex with heavy metal which is unstable 143 The following are the uses of D-penicillamine, EXCEPT A. Wilson’s disease B. Mercury poisoning C. Cystinuria D. Gouty arthritis 144 The following is an adverse effect of Desferrioxamine A. Anaphylactoid reaction B. Cardiac toxicity C. Hepatotoxicity D. Ototoxicity 145 Select the correct statement about Desferrioxamine A Very poor absorption by oral route B It is not effective in transfusion siderosis C It is obtained from spirochete D It is a drug of choice in copper poisoning 146 Astemizole A. has anti cholinergic and antihistamine actions B. crosses blood brain barrier. C. has a short duration of action D. it can prolong QT interval 147 Which of the following is not an action of H1 receptor blockers? A. Sedative B .Antiemetic action C. Reduced gactric secretion D. Local anesthetic action 148 Trombolytic therapy is not indicated in the following condition A. Acute myocardial infarction B Stroke (Cerebrovascular accident) C Deep vein thrombosis D. Large pulmonary embolism 149 Drugs recommended for immediate therapy in acute myocardial infarction (without arrhythmia) include the following, EXCEPT A. i.v. streptokinase B. i.v. alteplase . Cl i.v propranolol infusion D. i.v. lignocaine infusion 150 .Warfarin sodium A is administered parenterally B is a very rapidly acting anticoagulant C is effective in vitro and not in vivo D is contraindicated in pregnancy 151 The anticoagulant action of warfarin sodium can be reversed by

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